Re: elementary Sanskrit blunder by Harvard professor

On Sep 29, 10:54 am, Joachim Pense <s...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
ranjit_math...@xxxxxxxxx (in sci.lang):

On Sep 14, 5:38 pm, analys...@xxxxxxxxxxx wrote:
PIIr never existed.

Proto-Indic is what the West calls PIE (or at least the Indian dialect
of it).

Did your proto-Indic have a [z]?
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indo-Iranians
Among the sound changes from Proto-Indo-Iranian to Indo-Aryan is the
loss of the voiced sibilant *z

PIE is not supposed to have had *z, so what is the story of a *z in PII?

I don't know enough to say much about it; I was just quoting someone
else. Looking at this, it seems to be mistaken:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proto-Indo-Iranian

This is cute:
dnghu.org/indo-european-schleicher-fable.pdf



.

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