Re: Greek Psi
- From: analyst41@xxxxxxxxxxx
- Date: Fri, 27 Feb 2009 16:07:47 -0800 (PST)
On Feb 27, 8:41 am, Harlan Messinger
<hmessinger.removet...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
analys...@xxxxxxxxxxx wrote:
On Feb 27, 3:42 am, f...@xxxxxxxxxxx wrote:
On Feb 26, 5:59 pm, Harlan Messinger
<hmessinger.removet...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
"Test case" implies falsifiability. You keep stating proudly that yourBIR means fur, especially the fur on which a newborn was laid
conjectures are unfalsifiable, meaning that they are immune to testing.
You don't seem to understand what you are talking about at all.
(a peculiar meaning imposed by the permutation group, for,
as I said many times, Magdalenian words don't come alone
but in groups). The word has many derivatives, also of the
second and third degree - a great many derivatives I listed
up in five subsequent messages in my thread Magdalenian
experiment (near the begin of that thread, to be retrieved
via the Google interface of sci.lang). Yesterday I heard
Bob Dylan's song Man Gave Name to All the Animals and
was amused about the first animal he namd: man saw an
animal that liked to growl and had furry hair, so he thought
he will name it a bear ... That's exactly my explanation of
bear as the furry one, provider of the best fur, thick, longhaired,
soft and warm. My explanation can't be falsified and disproved
by anyone. And nobody could provide new and better evidence
for the PIE explanation of bear as the brown one, which, in my
opinion, is a lame explanation, someone looked up the six
homonyms *bher- and thought *bher- 'brown' fit best for the
bear. I can easily unite the six *bher- homonyms under BIR,
and as fur very often is brown, also this aspect is included
in my explanation. You Americans like competition, but not
in sci.lang, you want PIE being the only language model,
you like to have a monopole, you build up a wall of bricks.
With my excellent Magdalenian etymology of bear I pose
a real callenge, now you should show me and the lurkers
how good PIE is, how it can cope with the views of alleged
cranks, but you can't, you don't give me any evidence for
the brown one, bear is just the brown one because you say
so (using your favorite turn of phrase), albeit even the PIE
hardliner Trond Engen is not happy about the brown one.
Being such a lame etymology. Leading nowhere. While
my BIR led me far since last August, when I went for the
etymology of bear, even to a cosmic fur, namely the fur
BIR of the fur giver BIR GID which contained the primeval
world BIR LAD and is depicted as a form I call 'bowl' on
pillar 31 of temple D, Göbekli Tepe, in a hieroglyphic
inscription I identified as origin of Genesis 1:1 in the Bible:
)OG BIR AC CA
(also in my Magdalenian thread). Fertility, a word coming
from BRI meaning fertile, is the first test of a new hypothesis
that must solve problems and open windows and alleys,
real test cases are then only a question of time. And, by the
way, what are the test case you offer in testing the etymology
of bear as the brown one? does bear mean the brown one
just because you say so, no test and no evidence needed?
Yes - the establishmentarians know fully well that not a shread of
what they call PIE can be proved or tested in any way with what we
know up to now - and so their throwing fasifiablity in your face is
nonsensical.
You seem not to know the difference between "falsified" and "proved". Of
course, every hypothesis of PIE theory can be falsified, as soon as a
counterexample comes along that doesn't fit the current state of the
model. That is, in fact, why PIE theory keeps changing.
Let us for the moment overlook that there is no one PIE theory agreed
to by the establishment.
What would be an example of a datum "falsifying" PIE theory as of a
certain point in time and how did theory change to accomodate it?
Let me even help you here. They say that the discovery of Tocharian
changed the received opinion up to that time about the Kentum-Satem
split.
But that didn't occur because anything was falsified- all that
happened was that one unprovable assertion was replaced by another
unprovable assertion. The newer unprovable assertion may be
"better" (less special pleading etc.) - but the actual historical
factuality of one or the other assertion remains outside the realm of
traditional PIE theory.
But your theories can be challenged for internal consistency - for
example if your proto language was already distinguishing p and b, ri
and ir - then it would be inconsistent to derive later attested words
from it by invoking sound changes among p,b,f,v arbitrarily (Grimm's
Law and Verner's Law postulate opposite sound changes - but then
Verner's law has a different conditioning environment)..
Correct. Franz keeps coming up with hypotheses that are even
contradicted by facts about modern languages as spoken *today*, and yet
he never, ever lets that deter him from believing what he wants to
believe. Of course, you've been known to do the same.- Hide quoted text -
- Show quoted text -
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