Re: All languages are equally fit
- From: Adam Funk <a24061@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Tue, 29 Sep 2009 12:31:28 +0100
On 2009-09-27, Trond Engen wrote:
The subject looks like trolling but isn't.
In another group, when someone recently opined that some languages are
more elevated and thus more fit for abstraction, I answered that
linguists agree that all languages are equally fit to express any
thought, with the qualification that some may have a pre-existing
lexicon in a field but all are equally fit to create new terms for
anything from internal resources. I was challenged to provide support
for that, and now I realize that if I've ever seen it in print in a
linguistics book I can't remember where. Any suggestions?
I think most introductory and popular texts on linguistics say this,
but I've never seen a "proof" or even an outline or proposal for a
method of demonstrating it.
I suspect that if someone devised a method of analysing and measuring
this and got the (unwanted) result --- that all languages are not
equally versatile --- linguists would go nuts and attack it (or him),
because this is required dogma. (I'm not claiming it's wrong, just
that it's something linguistics students are told they have to
believe.)
I'm curious as to how "fit to create new terms for anything from
internal resources", can be reconciled (redefined?) with the frequency
of borrowing words from other languages.
--
Taken on the whole however this is a fine disc and a good example of
the current pop scene attempting to break out of its vulgarisms and
sometimes downright obscene derivative hogwash.
(Julian Stone-Mason B.A., 1972)
.
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