Re: did Godel prove Incompleteness or did he disprove Excluded Middle?
From: David C. Ullrich (ullrich_at_math.okstate.edu)
Date: 06/29/04
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Date: Tue, 29 Jun 2004 06:57:26 -0500
On Tue, 29 Jun 2004 11:35:54 +0300, Aatu Koskensilta
<aatu.koskensilta@xortec.fi> wrote:
>David C. Ullrich wrote:
>> On Mon, 28 Jun 2004 18:27:15 +0300, Aatu Koskensilta
>> <aatu.koskensilta@xortec.fi> wrote:
> >
>>>The constructivistic interpretation of ~P is P->False, where False is
>>>e.g. 0=1. So if you assume P and derive a contradiction, you have
>>>provided a transformation f that transforms any proof p of P into a
>>>proof f(p) of absurdity, i.e. you have proved P->False, but this is just
>>>~P. This is what we use in the proof above to derive ~P from f(A)!=f(B).
>>
>>
>> Huh^2.
>
>Hopefully Frege's answers clarified the situation for you.
Maybe just saying "Huh" wasn't clear. I didn't mean to say I
was confused, just "Huh, that's interesting."
Which is not to say that I understood all the details that
you explained to him and explain below - I didn't really
feel any need to follow every detail, I was just curious,
and what you said was sufficient to convince me that the
answer to my question was yes. (Which suprised me, hence
the "Huh".)
>They should
>convince that the proof I presented is intuitionistically valid, in any
>case. What I tried to do above was to explain why proof by contradiction
>is constructively valid, while the rule
>
> ~p
> .
> .
> False
> -----
> p
>
>is not.
>
>The basic idea is as follows. Constructive interpretation of logic is
>based on the idea that that asserting P is (usually) an incomplete way
>of saying that P has a proof, i.e. the following schema holds
>
> P <-> P has a constructive proof
>
>Of course here "proof" can't mean proof in any specific formal system.
>Elaborating on this would lead us to the muddy waters, so I'll just go on.
>
>Every true atomic statement, such as 0=0 or (1+1)+(1+1) = 1+1+1+1, is a
>proof of itself.
>
>A proof of A&B is a pair (a,b) such that a is a proof of A and b is a
>proof of B.
>
>A proof of A\/B is a pair (n,p) such that if n=0 then p is a proof of A
>and if n=1 then p is a proof of B.
Since you insist on clarifying things<g>, I'm not sure what this
means. Is n something like a random variable? What is n, exactly?
Or is what you mean equivalent to saying just
"A proof of AvB is a proof of (n=0 -> A) & (n=1 -> B)"?
I know what _that_ means...
>A proof of A->B is a constructive function f which transforms every
>proof of A into a proof of B. This is a point of controversy - or was
>when I last checked, at least - since intuitively it seems that we
>should actually require that a proof of A->B be a pair (p,f) such that f
>is a function transforming every proof of A into B and p is a proof of
>this fact. For how could the constructive function alone convince us of
>A->B? It could be immensely complicated and depend on all sorts of
>mathematical facts which we don't know. On the other hand, it's not
>clear what notion of proof should be used when defining what proof of
>A->B means, at least if we wish to avoid circularity. Again, I won't
>elaborate on these subtleties here.
Was "On the other hand, it's not clear what notion of proof should
be used when defining what proof of A->B means" actually supposed
to be "On the other hand, it's not clear what notion of proof
should be used when defining what a proof that f transforms every
proof of A into a proof of B means"?
>A proof of ~A is a proof of A->False, where False is some absurd
>proposition. This should immediatedly render obvious why proof by
>contradiction is valid. For if you have proved some absurd proposition
>assuming A, i.e.
>
> A
> .
> . (k)
> .
> False
>
>then obviously you have provided a constructive function to transform
>every proof of A into a proof of absurdity, since given a proof t of A
>you can just expand it into a proof of absurdity:
>
> .
> . (t)
> .
> A
> .
> . (k)
> .
> False
>
>By the definition of proof of A->False, you have a proof of A->False.
>But by definition, ~A = A->False, so you have proved ~A.
>
>Let's then consider the case where you assume ~A and derive an
>absurdity. You have obviously provided a constructive function which
>transforms any proof of ~A into a proof of ~A->False, i.e. ~~A. But
>~A->False = (A->False)->False, i.e. a constructive function transforming
>any proof of (A->False) - i.e. a constructive function transforming any
>proof of A into a proof of absurdity - into a proof of absurdity. But
>this doesn't usually give you a proof of A, since you can't in general
>actually extract such a proof from a proof of (A->False)->False, which
>is why rule
>
> ~p
> .
> .
> False
> -----
> p
>
>is not constructively valid. As a rule of thumb one might say that it's
>perfectly OK to derive negative conclusions by a proof of contradiction
>in constructive logics, but positive conclusions do not always follow
>from proofs by contradiction even where they would in classical logic.
************************
David C. Ullrich
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