Re: Disproof of the Halting Problem's Conclusion
From: Isaac To (iketo2_at_netscape.net)
Date: 07/24/04
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Date: 24 Jul 2004 23:45:57 +0800
>>>>> "Peter" == Peter Olcott <olcott@worldnet.att.net> writes:
Peter> All that Turing's proof showed was that you can not
Peter> construct a halt analyzer that returns its result back to
Peter> the program being analyzed. This has been taken to mean
Peter> (but does not mean) that
Peter> No program can ever be written to determine whether any
Peter> arbitrary program will halt.
There are two "program"s in your sentences above, and I assume that
you mean that the first "program" is not more powerful than Turing
machines; and the second "program" is not weaker (e.g., you do not
mean that "No program can ever be written to determine whether any
finite automata will halt").
Your description suggests that the proof that "halting problem for
Turing machines is unsolvable using Turing machines" is "interpreted"
further without much thoughts. This is not the truth.
What theoreticians "interpret" is instead that
The halting problem for any type of machine capable of expressing
the Turing machine computations cannot be solved using any type of
machine that the Turing machine is capable of expressing.
Here "a machine of type A capable to express a machine of type B"
means we can, using a Turing machine, mechanically convert a machine
of type A to a machine of type B.
E.g., in order to prove that the halting problem is unsolvable in the
context of "Random Access Machine" (RAM), i.e., a machine similar to a
Turing machine but with the addition of Random access memory, then one
would have to prove that (1) there is a Turing machine which converts
every Turing Machine to an equivalent RAM; and then (2) there is a
Turing machine which converts every RAM to an equivalent Turing
Machine. Both of these can be done, so the above "interpretation"
works to show that the halting problem is unsolvable in RAM. Note
that theoreticians *don't* "rerun" the arguments of the halting
problem unsolvability proof of the Turing machine in the context of
RAM. It is unnecessary, and it is not guaranteed to be possible.
Why the above "interpretation" is correct? It is simple logic: if
such a machine exists, then we would have a Turing machine that solve
the halting problem for the Turing machines. The machine would
consists of a stage to convert the input Turing machines into the
equivalent machine of the "stronger" type. Then, after the input is
"assimilated", a Turing machine (simulator of the halting solver in
another context) is used to run on that modified input. But we
already know that such Turing machines cannot exist, so we have a
contradiction. (Technically, there doesn't need to be a Turing
machine to create the simulator, the mere existance of the simulator
is sufficient for the impossibility of halting solver to carry over.)
I leave it to you as an exercise to check that your machines indeed
can be simulated using a Turing machine, and thus have no power to
solve the halting problem for any Turing-equivalent machines
(including regular programs if we assume infinite memory).
Regards,
Isaac.
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