Re: What makes a male/female ratio equal ??
From: >parr\(*> (gniKyruaL_at_tenretnitb.moc)
Date: 08/14/04
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Date: Sat, 14 Aug 2004 11:18:47 +0000 (UTC)
"David C. Ullrich" <ullrich@math.okstate.edu> wrote in message
news:hqfph0dbpdkher4vclj9khu40u5f0kaslr@4ax.com...
| On 13 Aug 2004 07:29:17 -0500,
| prash555_in@hotmail-dot-com.no-spam.invalid (prash555_in) wrote:
|
| >A ratio of males to females in a
| >perticuler region is always equal or
| >nearest to equal.
<...>
| that's because you don't understand natural
| selection. here's an oversimplified
| explanation, just to illustrate the -sort-
| of way natural selection -could- lead to a
| 50-50 ratio:
|
| suppose there were a gene g, such that
| people carrying g had 90% male children.
| then the descendants of g carriers would
| not be able to find enough mates, so g
| would die out.
Because each female would have to rear at least 10 children to
maturity? Reasonable enough at first glance. However a family of 9
husbands and 1 wife rearing at least 1 female would allow the gene to
survive.
On the other hand, suppose we has a gene 'm' which resulted in 2
females to 1 male child. Why would that one die out? Polygamous
families of 1 husband and 2 wives successfully rearing 3 children
would allow the gene to survive. And that sort of family arrangement
already exists in certain human societies, and they rear more than 3
children.
|
<...>
| >If yes then does it proves
| >the existance of God
| >?
|
| but no, this does not prove
| the existence of god.
|
| tee-hee.
|
Some men might think so, though, if gene 'm' existed ;)
-- )>==ss$$%PARR(º> Parr
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