Re: if the barber cuts everyones beard who doesn't shave himself....

Chris Menzel wrote:
>>> Yes. Line 1 stands on its own as an axiom, one that is easily seen to
> be logically valid.

For a fresh start (for me), could you demonstrate the logical validity
of Line 1?

Ken

>
> > I could summarize my objections very simply as, if all you know is,
> > 'there exists a y', how can you conclude 'for all y'?
>
> You can't. But the point is irrelevant, as it has nothing to do with
> the matter at hand.
>
> > To be honest, I'm really trying to poke holes in the proof because I
> > resent something so simple coming along and with a nonchalant wave of
> > the hand dismissing the strenuous efforts of the ZF gang.
>
> Who's doing that? No one has raised any problems for ZF in this thread.
>
> > I still hew to my objections until I'm totally crushed.
>
> You have yet to voice a coherent objection to anything.
>
> Cheers.
>
> Chris Menzel

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