Re: Turing completeness of the functional paradigm?
- From: Robert Low <mtx014@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Mon, 18 Jul 2005 23:32:19 +0100
Chris Menzel wrote:
On Mon, 18 Jul 2005 17:42:09 +0100, Robert Low <mtx014@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx> said:Assuming, of course, a standard model theory for second-order languages.By 'formalism' do you mean 'first order'? Because there are certainly sets of axioms which uniquely define the natural numbers: the second order Peano axioms do this.
As I'm sure you know, though, there is also a "general" model theory for
second-order languages that Henkin introduced in proving the
completeness of simple type theory, and second-order languages
interpreted by this model theory are no more expressive than first-order
languages.
Nope, I wasn't even aware of my ignorance in this regard :-(
Hence, so interpreted, second-order PA has nonstandard
models.
So where do they live? I was under the impression that the (second order) PA axioms were categoric, which meant that there was essentially only one model. Do you have to play in a different universe to get the different models?
I can't see any other way for the inductive axiom (any set containing zero and closed under successor is the whole of N) not to give uniqueness except that 'any set' doesn't mean what I think it ought to. But I've got used to the idea that my intuition isn't always all that reliable.
> You also need to make an assumption about the background model
theory relative to which you are defining what it is for a theory to define a certain class.
I'm sure I was taking that for granted; I didn't even realise I had any choice in the matter... .
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