Re: "Friendly Premises"

H. J. Sander Bruggink wrote:
> George Dance wrote:
>
> > Surely not. I am pointing out that, if Mr. Shobe is correct that the
> > concepts of 'self-proving procedure' and 'proof' refer to the same
> > things, then asserting (as you did) "There is no concept of
> > 'self-proving procedure' in logic" is equivalent to asserting "There is
> > no concept of 'proof' in logic."
>
> Let's do a little word game:
>
> I am pointing that, if the words 'bloem' and 'flower'
> refer to the same things, then asserting "there is no
> word 'bloem' in English" is equivalent to asserting
> "there is no word 'flower' in English."
>
> Do you agree with this? :-)

Well, yes, but we weren't talking about words but concepts. The fact
that an English-speaker doesn't use the word 'bloem' does not show that
English-speakers have no such concept. In fact they do, even though
they use a different word ('flower') for it.

.

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