Re: A proof for !(p^q) |- !p v !q



> George Dance wrote:
> > Newbie wrote:

> > Anyone knows how to proof it by natural deduction ?

> I assume you're trying to prove this for a course, and are only allowed
> to use certain rules (otherwise you could prove it directly using
> DeMorgan's rules).

~(p & q) <-> (~p v ~q)

This is de Morgan 2!

#PH

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