Re: Moore on Skolem's Paradox

On 24 Sep 2005 11:18:24 -0700, "William of Ockham"
<d3uckner@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

>Ullrich:
>> The "paradox" has to do with the existence of models of
>> set theory with certain "paradoxical" properties.
>
>If you read Moore's article, you will see he does not state that.

I didn't say he stated that. That _is_ what the "paradox"
arises from.

>He
>does not state that what he calls the Paradox consists in the existence
>of models of set theory with certain "paradoxical" properties.

The excerpt you posted begins like so:

"The only possible conclusion [given the Lowenheim-Skolem Theorem]..."

The LS theorem _is_ a theorem about the existence of models of
theories.

>> why are you contributing articles
>> to Wikipedia on this topic?
>
>I have merely summarised what Moore says the paradox to be. I think I
>am up to that.
>
>> Do you specify in the article that the author does
>> not know exactly what Skolem's theorem states?
>
>I have not included in any of the quotations, anything Moore says about
>what Skolem's theorem states. Let me look this up now.
>
>Btw, I accidentally submitted two versions of this posting by mistake,
>under the impression one had got lost in the post.


************************

David C. Ullrich
.

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