Re: Moore on Skolem's Paradox

On 28 Sep 2005 00:03:14 GMT, Chris Menzel <cmenzel@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
said:
>> If by contrast the difference in extension is not in principle
>> demonstrable, then the two terms (surely) have the same meaning. Yet
>> this is what Skolem's theorem seems to deny.
>
> What is "Skolem's theorem"?

I guess you meant the Löwenheim-Skolem theorem. It's just that it so
obviously doesn't deny what you say it seems to deny that it didn't
occur to me that that is what you meant.

.

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