Re: Moore on Skolem's Paradox

On 1 Oct 2005 08:31:51 -0700, "William of Ockham"
<d3uckner@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

>
>>
>> And which of these books concludes that when we learn English
>> we learn that "x" means 2?
>>
>>
>> ************************
>>
>> David C. Ullrich
>
>Where on EARTH am I meant to have said this????!!!!!

Here's a quote:

>What we call "learning a
>language" is assigning a reference to all of the terms that we learn.
>So we learn that "hamburgers" mean hamburgers, "Socrates" means
>Socrates, "two"means the number two, and so on. An interpretation (as
>I understand) is the information which we must have about a sentence in
>order to understand it.

>So by "set theory as expressed in some language *English" I mean the
>language+ the interpretation given to it as a part of learning the
>language itself.'

>An interpretation is "An allocation of significance to the terms of a
>purely formal system, by specifying ranges for the variables,
>denotations for the individual constants &c".
>
>Setting a range for a variable is not the same as specifying a
>reference for the individual constants.
>
>An interpretation specifies the semantics of a language. That includes
>specifying what possible values the variables can take. Bloody hell.


************************

David C. Ullrich
.

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