Re: Help with a problem
- From: "George Dance" <georgedance04@xxxxxxxx>
- Date: 27 Nov 2005 12:01:20 -0800
Torkel Franzen wrote:
>
> In intuitionistic logic, there is no distinction between direct
> and indirect proofs, since there are no indirect proofs. It is in
> classical logic and mathematics that the distinction is significant.
Well, don't keep us in suspense. What exactly is the distinction
you're making between:
(1) "concluding ~A from a derivation of a contradiction from A"
and
(2) "concluding A from a derivation of a contradiction from ~A".
And why do you see it as significant?
.
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