Re: realizing and omitting types
- From: "Per Freem" <perfreem@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: 11 Dec 2005 21:39:29 -0800
Torkel Franzen wrote:
> "Per Freem" <perfreem@xxxxxxxxx> writes:
>
> > the point is that
> > i want to have some formula of one free variable to imply everything in
> > X.
>
> If T proves (x)(y)(F1(x)&F1(y)->x=y) and T proves
> (Ex)(F1(x)&Fk(x)) for every k, T proves (x)(F1(x)->Fk(x)) for every k.
sorry to be thick but that's precisely the step i am missing. what is
the inbetween step? if T proves (Ex)F1(x)&Fk(x)) for every k, how does
(x)(y)(F1(x) &...&Fk(x) & F1(y) &...&Fk(y)->x = y) get you from the
existential to the universal claim, i.e. (x)(F1(x)->Fk(x))?
.
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