Re: Metamathematically True or False?
- From: "Rupert" <rupertmccallum@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: 3 Jan 2006 18:20:08 -0800
george wrote:
> Rupert wrote:
> > It's easy for a theory in the first-order language of arithmetic not to
> > be Sigma-1 complete.
>
> Sure,
> if you concede the existence of a first-order language of
> arithmetic.
>
Existence of the language seems to me to be a pretty uncontentious sort
of proposition. Perhaps you're talking about existence of the standard
semantics for that language? But that would have no bearing on what I
said.
> Standard parlance in that arena is unreasonable.
>
> If you define a theory (as is standardly and wrongly done)
> as just any old consequence-closed class of sentences, then,
> yes, you can get a whole lot of basically worthless junk.
> Those definitions of those
> classes are problematic for the simple reason that it is
> too hard to say that you ever know what class you are talking
> about; you don't know which sentences are in the class and which
> are not.
>
Why not?
> Standard parlance usually uses "formal theory" to mean
> what "theory" ought to mean, but even that is not sufficient.
>
> Theories deserve to be called that BECAUSE they contain
> THEOREMS, NOT merely sentences.
> Theorems deserve to be called that because they are PROVABLE,
> NOT "true".
>
I think I could agree with this last sentence. But what's that got to
do with it? Who mentioned truth?
> > The completeness theorem has nothing to do with it.
>
> It would be more accurate to say that "truth" has nothing to do with
> it,
> although the separate/AK front of the battle.
What does AK stand for?
Yes, I quite agree, truth has nothing to do with it.
.
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