computable analysis problem



Hello : )

Is it true that if a set of reals is computable (or has computable
characteristic function depending on your viewpoint) then it is Borel?
If this is the case then where can I find proof/discussion of this?
This is not a homework problem...

Very grateful for you sharing your wisdom,
Snis Pilbor

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Relevant Pages

  • Re: measurable function
    ... (where A is a sigma-algebra on X and A' is a sigma-algebra on Y) ... even when A' is the Borel field of a first countable topology ... take Y to be R, the reals, or Rbar, the extended reals, with its Borel ... after I mentioned the Lebesgue field. ...
    (sci.math)
  • Re: Lebesgue but not Borel
    ... > of reals is Borel. ... the set WO of ordinal codes is Borel. ... to your post saying which post you're replying to), ...
    (sci.math)
  • Re: Lebesgue but not Borel
    ... of reals is Borel. ... is singular, the set WO of ordinal codes is Borel. ...
    (sci.math)

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