Re: Goldbach Conjecture & the Foundation of First Order Logic.



In article <t81Sg.40226$R63.29472@pd7urf1no>,
Nam Nguyen <namducnguyen@xxxxxxx> wrote:

However *counterintuitive* to our knowledge of FOL reasoning,
I think that:

1) If GC is *genuinely* true, it will be impossible to (informally and
arithmetically) know that. Equivalently, it will be impossible
to know a proof of GC in "PA".

Why do you think that? The converse of it is certainly true, but that
doesn't help any.

2) If GC is *genuinely* false, it's still possible that it's impossible
to prove that in PA.

No. Iff it is false, there is at least one particular n such that ~GC
for such n. Simple calculation (in PA) can verify it. The hard part of
course is finding such an n.

Again, I know that doesn't sound right. But it just doesn't _sound_
so.
.



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