Re: Request for Review of ZF Inconsistency Proof
- From: David C. Ullrich <ullrich@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Thu, 07 Jun 2007 05:23:00 -0500
On Wed, 06 Jun 2007 23:49:12 -0000, Scott <ToaTerra@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On Jun 6, 3:34 pm, magi...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx (Arturo Magidin) wrote:
It is a waste of YOUR time, and a waste of everyone else's time.
Not really, as I enjoy learning the subtlies of set theory. There is
no better way then taking theories and performing some excercises to
discover the why of things.
You deleted the statement of _what_ he said was a waste of time.
Yes, to attain a deep understanding of something it's often good
to try to work things out for yourself. He didn't say anything
about that. In fact claiming that you've shown something
like "ZF is inconsistent" when you don't even know what the
things you're talking about _mean_ is a waste of time.
For example:
This subthread started with your silly comments about how pi + pi
was undefined. It was clear that you didn't know the _definition_
of the sum of two real numbers. Saying things about addition of
reals _before_ learning what addition of reals _is_ is in fact
a waste of time.
As to grasping language, statements, etc... I must confess that I was
not born with complete knowledge like you were, but must stumble
through life learning to improve myself.
That's not what you're doing, when you just _guess_ at what things
(like x + y for real x, y) mean instead of reading the definition.
Hopefully, my posts are
moving in a positive direction.
Anyways, I want to thank everyone for taking the time to point out the
flaws. I was hoping to get a little farther in that the summation
would generate a finite string, but apparently not.
I think Virgil hit it on the nose: I am having a difficult time
understanding how N is infinite with only finite subsets.
Huh? Nobody said that every subset of N was finite! Every _element_
of N is finite.
This is another example. If you're going to accomplish something
in math you simply need to be much much more careful.
A theorem
stated elsewhere states:
"Every infinite set can be placed in a one-to-one correspondence with
at least one of its proper subsets."
This is the crux of what I'm trying to undersand as it apparently does
not apply to the set of natural numbers.
Of course that applies to N - nobody's said anything that would
indicate it didn't.
If you wish to address this
issue, please do so. Otherwise, good luck in life and I hope to talk
with you in another post.
You really do need to read and write much more carefully. When
someone says something about "element" and you think he said
something about "subset" you're being so sloppy that you're
really not going to get anywhere.
That's true, regardless of whether you believe it. If you
prefer not to believe it, and hence prefer to continue to
make a fool of yourself in public, that's your right.
************************
David C. Ullrich
.
- References:
- Request for Review of ZF Inconsistency Proof
- From: Scott
- Re: Request for Review of ZF Inconsistency Proof
- From: Scott
- Re: Request for Review of ZF Inconsistency Proof
- From: Arturo Magidin
- Re: Request for Review of ZF Inconsistency Proof
- From: Scott
- Re: Request for Review of ZF Inconsistency Proof
- From: Arturo Magidin
- Re: Request for Review of ZF Inconsistency Proof
- From: Scott
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