modal scope fallacy

Hi All,

I have been reading about logical fallacies here:

http://www.fallacyfiles.org/modlscop.html

and here:

http://www.iep.utm.edu/f/fallacy.htm#Modal

and I find the explanations kind of confusing.

Does the modal scope fallacy boil down to:

If something is demonstrably true, it must in all cases have been
true.

or

If something is demonstratably true, it was inevitable that it would
become true

or

does it means something else (please explain)

Thanks

.