Re: Second order arithmetic



More specifically, obviously the formal system of second order
arithmetic can't give us an algorithmic procedure for deciding the
truth of arbitrary arithmetical statements. What kind of arithmetical
statement, then, is unprovable by the means of second order arithmetic?

The statement "this statement is not derivable using the given rules
of inference and axioms of arithmetic" is, among others, not provable
using the given rules of inference and axioms of arithmetic. There is
no essential difference between first-order and second-order
arithmetic in this respect. In case of second-order logic, which
axioms and rules of inference we choose to adopt as logically valid
affects which theorems of number theory are provable, but whichever
system of deduction we adopt, Gödelian arguments apply -- we can, with
some care, treat the system, in so far as their proof-theoretic
properties are concerned, as multi-sorted first-order systems, in
which the logical rules of inference and logical axioms are taken as
non-logical first-order axioms, and carry out the familiar Gödelian
arguments.

--
Aatu Koskensilta (aatu.koskensilta@xxxxxxxxx)

"Wovon man nicht sprechen kann, daruber muss man schweigen"
- Ludwig Wittgenstein, Tractatus Logico-Philosophicus

.



Relevant Pages

  • Re: Consistency of Classical Analysis: "Unproven"
    ... It is easy to prove the consistency of classical analysis in systems ... extending this project to all of second-order arithmetic. ... arbitrarily confine either of these disciplines to a finite set of axioms, ... Do you happen to know if Hilbert's formulation of Euclidian Geometry stands ...
    (sci.math)
  • Re: all the incompleteness proofs are worthless untill...
    ... derivable from axioms via inference rules. ... Around here provability is indeed the same thing as ... own connection to absolute truth, since it was only the worry ...
    (sci.logic)
  • Re: A question on FOL inference
    ... be "too easily" or too trivially a consequence of the axioms, ... The 2 statements can never be *logically equivalent*: no matter how we manipulate the logic rules (and not the FOL's inference rules), we simply can not "convert" a 'side' into an 'angle'! ... the very definition of logical equivalence. ... Let L be the language of group theory with + be the binary function, and e be the constant individual (which would be the ...
    (sci.logic)
  • Re: Why? [was Re: Cantor`s powerset theorem is false?]
    ... A while back, after having already corrected a number of your posts, I ... The axioms of Z set theory do NOT allow that inference. ... That gives the existence of ...
    (sci.logic)
  • Re: all the incompleteness proofs are worthless untill...
    ... derivable from axioms via inference rules. ... Everything is relative to the context of a particular formal ... between provability and derivability from axioms via inference ...
    (sci.logic)