Model here, model there
- From: Newberry <newberryxy@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Thu, 25 Oct 2007 07:50:09 -0700
Let T be a theory consisting of classical logic with Peano axioms. T
then contains an undecidable sentence G. If T is consistent then G is
intuitively true, it is true on interpretation, and it is true in the
standard model. They tell me they are pretty sure that T "is"
consistent, i.e. Con(T). We cannot prove it but it is consistent by
ordinary mathematical reasoning. No matter how long we generate
theorems we will never derive a contradiction. If this is the case
then Con(T) is plainly true. We can prove G = Con(T).
So assume T is consistent. Then we have.
1) Con(T) is plainly true
2) G is true in the standard model
3) G = Con(T)
So is the assumption that T is consistent equivalent to: the standard
model is true and the non-standard models are false?
.
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