Re: A question about ackermann's set theory.

On Tue, 30 Oct 2007 15:47:46 -0700, Rupert <rupertmccallum@xxxxxxxxx>
wrote:


So according the reflection axiom schema we will have

Ex(x e V & Ay(y e x <-> (y e V & y is ordinal))

Which is clearly contradictive!

Is it? I don't know, I don't know Ackermann set theory very well. Can
you elaborate on exactly where the inconsistency comes in?

My 2 cents: This would mean that there is a set of all ordinals. No?


F.

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