Re: A question about ackermann's set theory.
- From: Zaljohar@xxxxxxxxx
- Date: Tue, 30 Oct 2007 19:09:02 -0700
On Oct 30, 3:47 pm, Rupert <rupertmccal...@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On Oct 31, 5:43 am, Zaljo...@xxxxxxxxx wrote:
Hi all,
Ackermann's set theory is present at
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ackermann_set_theory
One thing I don't understand is the reflection axiom schema
My objection is the following:
Let F(y)<->( yeV & y is ordinal)
Now we have Ay ( (yeV & y is ordinal) -> yeV )
So according the reflection axiom schema we will have
Ex( xeV & Ay( yex <->( yeV & y is ordinal ) )
Which is clearly contradictive!
Is it? I don't know, I don't know Ackermann set theory very well. Can
you elaborate on exactly where the inconsistency comes in?
Yes, this is clear! the set of all ordinals in V cannot be in V, since
if then
it would be an ordinal in V, and thus in itself, contradicting
Regularity for sets.
Zuhair
but I must be wrong.
So were is my error?
Zuhair- Hide quoted text -
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