Re: is there a set of all ordinals



obviously there was a set of all ordinals in Burali-fortis day as they came
up with the paradox did canto accept such a set

In Russells day there was a set of all sets
which destroyed naive set theory
so to avoid it set theory just introduced an axiom

Axiom schema of specification

which wiki says
"The restriction to z is necessary to avoid Russell's paradox and its
variants. "

so was there a set of all sets which has just been dissalowed due to an
ad hoc axiom


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