Re: is there a set of all ordinals

you say

'Set' is defined contextually by set theory, so what a set can be
depends on the set theory you have in mind. You can't say much about
sets without specifying a set theory. Why not? Because of paradoxes
such as Burali-Forti.

so the set of all ordinals and the set of all sets-ir russells paradox
were there is russells and cantors and Burali-Forti day
but
because they make set theory absurd meaninglessness or contradictory they
have just by ad hoc means been outlawed
your answer indicates that there is no proof independent of set theory
showing these sets are not possible
just because the make maths inconsistent is no proof that they must not
exist

if tomorrow if some one proved that the Axiom of regularity made
arithmetic inconsistent all you would do is outlaw the axiom

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