Re: Largest Set in ZFC?



On Mar 8, 9:45 am, "Peter Webb" <webbfam...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
wrote:

I wrote:

"I don't know the motivation of the actual people who wrote it, but
the
reason I personally would give is this: We don't NEED to be any more
specific, since separation does the rest of the job for us to get to
the specific set w that we want."

*** I know much less about this topic than you do, but it seems there is a
more fundamental reason for the vagueness of the definition of X. If anybody
could produce a specific such X, then they would have a model of ZF (a
collection of sets that satisfy ZF).

I don't see that at all.

What was asked boils down to why not just put the "and no more
elements" clause in the axiom itself. If we put that clause in the
axiom itself, there would be no harm. But it's not necessary since we
get it from separation anyway.

This would prove the consistency of ZF.
AFAIK, there is no theoretical reason why such a set X could not be
described, but none ever has, and its seems pretty obvious that none ever
will. Hence the requirement to vague it up a bit.

No, such a set IS described. We call it 'w'. This has nothing to do
with consistency.

MoeBlee

.



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