Re: Godel proved maths inconsistent not incompleteness theorem
- From: Charlie-Boo <shymathguy@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Fri, 14 Mar 2008 17:55:05 -0700 (PDT)
On Mar 14, 3:27 pm, Chris Menzel <cmen...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On Fri, 14 Mar 2008 11:39:21 -0700 (PDT), Charlie-Boo
<shymath...@xxxxxxxxx> said:
...You can say that finite sets have their own individual
cardinalities if you want (number of elements), but I have found it
easier if you treat the finite sets as one class, the r.e. sets as the
second, the reals/subsets as the 3rd., etc.
Finite sets are r.e. Does this mean your first class is included in
your second class? Also, where do denumerable non-r.e. sets fit into
your picture? (NB: For mathematicians, "denumerable" = "has cardinality
aleph_0", so you'll need to be careful when you frame your answer, given
that, in your unique idiolect, "aleph_0" = "finite".)
Is that the best you can some up with?
How about telling us the very best theorem that you have ever
discovered yourself?
C-B
.
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