The king of france is ...
- From: Newberry <newberryxy@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Tue, 15 Apr 2008 20:11:30 -0700 (PDT)
Let Kx be x = king of France. I take it that
(x)(Kx -> Wx) (1)
is true. And so is
(x)[(Kx & (Ey)(Ky -> y=x)) -> Wx] (2)
Correct?
.
- Follow-Ups:
- Re: The king of france is ...
- From: Newberry
- Re: The king of france is ...
- From: Newberry
- Re: The king of france is ...
- From: Newberry
- Re: The king of france is ...
- From: holden_owen
- Re: The king of france is ...
- From: William Elliot
- Re: The king of france is ...
- Prev by Date: Re: Godel proved maths inconsistent not incompleteness theorem
- Next by Date: Re: What sci.logic is like
- Previous by thread: CBL Puzzle # 7 A Maze of Axioms and Theorems (+ and - as well)
- Next by thread: Re: The king of france is ...
- Index(es):
