Re: My talk about Godel to the post-grads.
- From: John Jones <jonescardiff@xxxxxxx>
- Date: Thu, 10 Jul 2008 22:32:05 +0100
David C. Ullrich wrote:
On Wed, 09 Jul 2008 22:04:12 +0100, John Jones <jonescardiff@xxxxxxx>.
wrote:
David C. Ullrich wrote:
Yes, it is irrelevant. Either A or B is irrelevant in the formation of a union in which only either A or B has elements in common with x.B doesn't come into it any more than C.B is irrelevant to a statement about A and B? Huh.
Okay, you don't see what I am getting at. Try this:C is a {banana,orange}. DO YOU SEE WHAT I AM GETTING AAAT??? Sorry to shout, but do you see what I am getting at?No, and neither will anyone else - your comment about C has no
relevance whatever.
IF a union of A and B is described only in terms of either A or B, then how can a union be a union of A AND B?
ie. how can you have a union of EITHER A OR B?
I finally see what the problem is - you don't understand simple
English. The definition of A union B is this: "the set of all x
such that x is an element of A or x is an element of B".
In particular the definition is _not_ this:
"the set of all x such that x is in A or the set of all x such
that x is in B".
The closest I can come to making sense of your comments
is that you're misreading the definition that way.
Hint: When you object to the notion of the union of two
sets you're _really_ out somewhere in left field. Another
hint would be that the definition I've given _is_ the
standard definition, as you'd know if you were not
so awesomely woof ignorant.
[C comes into it because if the union is only of either A or B, then C can be associated with either term. Honestly, your definition must be wrongly transcribed.]
David C. Ullrich
"Understanding Godel isn't about following his formal proof. That would make a mockery of everything Godel was up to."
(John Jones, "My talk about Godel to the post-grads."
in sci.logic.)
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- Re: My talk about Godel to the post-grads.
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