Re: non-Archimedean models of Euclidean geometry?
- From: David C. Ullrich <dullrich@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Tue, 10 Mar 2009 06:13:14 -0500
On Mon, 9 Mar 2009 09:27:14 -0700 (PDT), Gc <Gcut667@xxxxxxxxxxx>
wrote:
On 9 maalis, 12:22, David C. Ullrich <dullr...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On Sun, 8 Mar 2009 07:44:18 -0700 (PDT), Gc <Gcut...@xxxxxxxxxxx>
wrote:
On 7 maalis, 14:17, David C. Ullrich <dullr...@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On Fri, 06 Mar 2009 20:31:43 -0800, Ben Crowell
<crowel...@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
I've been trying to absorb a few ideas from Tarski's work leading up
to the proof that elementary Euclidean geometry is complete and
consistent. I'm guessing that the full proof is hopelessly huge
and technical, but I at least want to start by understanding
the interpretation of Tarski's axiomatization.
He has an axiom schema of continuity. It's basically the Dedekind
cut construction, but because he wants a first-order theory he defines
the partitions (A,B) not by quantifications over sets A and B but by
making an axiom schema in which A and B are defined by first-order
formulae. The axiom basically says that if every point in A is to the
left of every point in B, then there exists a point between A and B.
Now non-Archimedean models are generally going to violate this
axiom. E.g., A could be the set of infinitesimals and B the positive
reals. However, I'm not clear on whether this still applies when A
and B have to be defined by first-order logical formulae. The first-
order language in which the formulae have to be constructed can't,
for example, define the set of all infinitesimals I used in the
counterexample above.
So I can tell that this axiom definitely rules out the rationals
as a model, but does it actually rule out the hyperreals or the
surreal numbers?
I don't know about them specifially, but it certainly can't
rule out non-Archimedean models, by the compactness
theorem: Add a new constant symbol c, and consider
the theory plus the sentences c > 0, c < 1, c < 1/2,
c < 1/3, ... .
I think for the schema you have to use symbols of the language in
question or definable in that language.
What are you talking about?
I don`t mean to disrespect you, but I understand that we are speaking
about a schema which contains FOL formulas which are formulas of a
spesific language.
Why in the world would you imagine that? I was not talking
about any schema at all.
David C. Ullrich
"Understanding Godel isn't about following his formal proof.
That would make a mockery of everything Godel was up to."
(John Jones, "My talk about Godel to the post-grads."
in sci.logic.)
.
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