Re: Would it matter if ZF was inconsistent?



On Jul 23, 4:16 pm, "Jesse F. Hughes" <je...@xxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Transfer Principle <lwal...@xxxxxxxxx> writes:
WM already believes he has a proof of ~Con(ZFC). So I'd
like to believe that those who support WM would follow
path 1), while those who oppose WM would follow path
2) upon a real proof of ~Con(ZFC). But the posts of both
MoeBlee and Newman suggest that it's in fact possible to
follow path 1) and still think WM is a "crank." Just because
MoeBlee and Newman don't like it when WM says he has
a proof that ZFC is inconsistent, it doesn't mean that either
would oppose, say, Nelson, if he said he had a proof that
ZFC is inconsistent.
But you're being much too coy with your own beliefs. Do you
believe that [WM]'s shown ZFC to be inconsistent?

I don't believe that WM has a proof of ~Con(ZFC). Otherwise
there wouldn't have been any reason for me to even bring up
Nelson in the first place, for WM's proof would suffice.

The reason I brought this up is that I was trying to find out
whether anyone who says that ZFC is inconsistent would be
villified on sci.math, which would include Nelson if he could
complete his proof of ~Con(PA), or whether only those who
say that ZFC is inconsistent but can't prove it, like WM,
would be villified on sci.math. In other words, is one called a
"crank" for _saying_ ~Con(ZFC), or for saying ~Con(ZFC)
_without_proof_? If the former, then Nelson would be equally
villified for proving ~Con(PA) and ~Con(ZFC), but if the latter,
then he wouldn't.
.



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