Re: How tp prove this proposition?

From: Julian V. Noble (jvn_at_virginia.edu)
Date: 10/17/04

  • Next message: Hans Mittelmann: "Re: Fortran to Matlab conversion"
    Date: Sun, 17 Oct 2004 15:34:33 -0400
    
    

    "Zdislav V. Kovarik" wrote:
    >
    > On Thu, 14 Oct 2004, Julian V. Noble wrote:
    >
    > > ChunAn wrote:
    > > >
    > > > How to prove: exp(rT) > (1+r/m)^(mT)
    > > >
    > > > Many thanks,
    > > >
    > > > ChunAn
    > >
    > > I assume r/m > -1 or the problem makes no sense (for mT not an integer).
    > >
    > > Take the (mT)'th root of both sides and note that with r/m = x, you now
    > > have to prove
    > >
    > > exp(x) > 1 + x, for x > -1 .
    > >
    > > Let me suggest the Mean Value Theorem. It is easier if you
    > > treat the cases
    > >
    > > I: x > 0
    > >
    > > II: -1 < x < 0
    > >
    > > separately.
    > >
    > >
    > > --
    > > Julian V. Noble
    > > Professor Emeritus of Physics
    > > jvn@lessspamformother.virginia.edu
    > > ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
    > > http://galileo.phys.virginia.edu/~jvn/
    > >
    > > "For there was never yet philosopher that could endure the toothache
    > > patiently." -- Wm. Shakespeare, Much Ado about Nothing. Act v. Sc. 1.
    > >
    > There is a one-shot proof, based on the identity
    >
    > exp(-x) * (1+x) = 1 - x^2 * integral [0 to 1] t * exp(-x*t) dt
    >
    > so that 1 + x < exp(x) for all real x.
    >
    > Cheers, ZVK(Slavek).

    Very nice.

    -- 
    Julian V. Noble
    Professor Emeritus of Physics
    jvn@lessspamformother.virginia.edu
        ^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^^
    http://galileo.phys.virginia.edu/~jvn/
       "For there was never yet philosopher that could endure the 
        toothache patiently."  
            -- Wm. Shakespeare, Much Ado about Nothing. Act v. Sc. 1.
    

  • Next message: Hans Mittelmann: "Re: Fortran to Matlab conversion"

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