Divisibility property of binomial coefficients (Hoggatt triangles)
tchow_at_lsa.umich.edu
Date: 08/20/04
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Date: 20 Aug 2004 11:15:00 -0400
Is it true, and if so how does one prove, that
(n choose m) * (n choose m+1) * ... * (n choose m+k)
is divisible by
(n choose 0) * (n choose 1) * ... * (n choose k) ?
This problem is associated with so-called "Hoggatt triangles" and
"Hoggatt sequences" but the papers containing those keywords appear
to assert the above divisibility property without proof.
-- Tim Chow tchow-at-alum-dot-mit-dot-edu The range of our projectiles---even ... the artillery---however great, will never exceed four of those miles of which as many thousand separate us from the center of the earth. ---Galileo, Dialogues Concerning Two New Sciences
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