Re: Laplace Transform with Branch Points

From: Maxim (ab_def_at_prontomail.com)
Date: 07/01/04


Date: 1 Jul 2004 15:01:47 -0700

gtg655n@mail.gatech.edu (James) wrote in message news:<d27f5d81.0406300935.7ae2c115@posting.google.com>...
> Hi, I'm trying to compute the inverse Laplace transform of
> f(p)=1/(p*sqrt(p+1)). I've reasoned that there are branch points at p
> = -1 and infinity so I make a branch cut from -1 to negative infinity
> in the complex plane. I draw the semi circle on the left hand side
> and draw a straight line at Re(p) = alpha from negative infinity on
> the the imaginary axis to infinity on the imaginary axis. The semi
> circle is drawn such that the branch cut is not enclosed. I integrate
> on these boundaries and add them up. I have one pole at p=0, so I add
> the residue at this point.
>
> I end up with an integral of the form:
> 1/(2*pi*I)*int(exp(-u*t)/(u*sqrt(u-1))du, u=-1..inf)
> (where I^2=-1)
>
> I'm not 100% sure that this final integral is correct, but I think it
> is. I have had a lot of trouble with computing this integral. Any
> suggestions/corrections are greatly appreciated.

Let F(p)=e^(p*t)/(p*sqrt(p+1)); we need to find

f(t) = 1/(2*Pi*I)*Integrate(F(p), p = gamma-I*infinity ..
gamma+I*infinity).

Take gamma=1; we can transform the contour of integration to the
contour

p = -infinity-I*eps .. 1-I*eps .. 1+I*eps .. -infinity+I*eps

for a small eps>0, so we traverse the lower and then the upper bank of
the branch cut. The integral from -infinity-I*eps to -1-I*eps can be
approximated with the integral of -F(p) from -infinity to -1 because
of the branch cut of the square root; the integral from -1+I*eps to
-infinity+I*eps is approximated with the integral of F(p) from -1 to
-infinity. The integral along the remaining part of the contour can be
found by taking the residue of F(p) at 0, which equals 1. We obtain

f(t) = 1/(2*Pi*I)*(-2*Integrate(F(p), p = -infinity .. -1) + 2*Pi*I),

evaluating which is just a matter of technical computations. Making
the substitution u^2=-p-1, we get

f0(t) = Integrate(F(p), p = -infinity .. -1) =

2*I*Integrate(e^((-u^2-1)*t)/(u^2+1), u = 0 .. infinity).

Perhaps we can transform it to the error function directly with
another change of variables, but there is another way: differentiating
on parameter t, we get

f0'(t) = -2*I*Integrate(e^((-u^2-1)*t), u = 0 .. infinity) =

-2*I*e^(-t)*sqrt(Pi/t)/2 = -I*Pi*diff(erf(sqrt(t)), t),

where erf(t) = 2/sqrt(Pi)*Integrate(exp(-u^2), u = 0 .. t) and diff is
the derivative. Therefore,

f0(t) = -I*Pi*erf(sqrt(t)) + f0(0),

f0(0) = 2*I*Integrate(1/(u^2+1), u = 0 .. infinity) = I*Pi.

Putting it all together, we obtain

f(t) = 1/(2*Pi*I)*(-2*(-I*Pi*erf(sqrt(t)) + I*Pi) + 2*Pi*I) =

erf(sqrt(t)).

Maxim Rytin
m.r@inbox.ru



Relevant Pages

  • Re: Why Fourier and Laplace transforms?
    ... > that he doesn't mean Gto be the Laplace transform of f? ... that's only a matter of notation. ... >> involves distributions, but one needn't use them by all means. ... I'll not discuss which kind of integration here, ...
    (sci.math)
  • [Intel compiler][Linux] Nan problem
    ... In that code a hankel ... transform is computed via a fast hankel transform (Algorithm 588 from ... The first column is the integration ... I thought that a NaN appears when you try to ...
    (comp.lang.fortran)
  • Re: Lightning and Fourier transform of an impulse
    ... transform for that amount of time, ... audio output for the same amount of time, ... zero outside the integration time. ... integration is not zero, but a repeate of whatever you integrated. ...
    (comp.dsp)
  • Re: Why? [was Re: Cantor`s powerset theorem is false?]
    ... Surely you agree that measure theory and integration is ... of any countable set of reals is zero. ... or discontinuous, then doing a transform, and then an inverse ... Under this definition of equivalence, ...
    (sci.logic)

Quantcast