Re: Power Question
- From: Christopher Creutzig <christopher@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Wed, 09 Jan 2008 11:29:17 +0100
David W. Cantrell wrote:
How could there be such a ruling? Who would make it? (E.g., I suppose a
body such as the DIN could make such a ruling, but would it have much
influence outside of Germany?) Mathematicians, much to my regret, do not
Would it have much influence here inside Germany? DIN has a rule
somewhere that states whether 0 is a natural number, but I would have to
look up what they decided.
BTW, one argument for taking a^b^c to mean a^(b^c) is that, if we actually
want (a^b)^c, it can be written easily, via a law of exponents, as a^(b*c).
Try a=-1, b=2, c=1/2. But in any case, I don't think there is a
widely-used operator “^” in mathematics. That's just a computer notation
for something most mathematicians would denote by a superscript.
--
if all this stuff was simple, we'd
probably be doing something else. -- Daniel Lichtblau, s.m.symbolic
.
- References:
- Power Question
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- Re: Power Question
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