Re: Power Question
- From: Christopher Creutzig <christopher@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Wed, 09 Jan 2008 11:29:17 +0100
David W. Cantrell wrote:
How could there be such a ruling? Who would make it? (E.g., I suppose a
body such as the DIN could make such a ruling, but would it have much
influence outside of Germany?) Mathematicians, much to my regret, do not
Would it have much influence here inside Germany? DIN has a rule
somewhere that states whether 0 is a natural number, but I would have to
look up what they decided.
BTW, one argument for taking a^b^c to mean a^(b^c) is that, if we actually
want (a^b)^c, it can be written easily, via a law of exponents, as a^(b*c).
Try a=-1, b=2, c=1/2. But in any case, I don't think there is a
widely-used operator “^” in mathematics. That's just a computer notation
for something most mathematicians would denote by a superscript.
--
if all this stuff was simple, we'd
probably be doing something else. -- Daniel Lichtblau, s.m.symbolic
.
- References:
- Power Question
- From: Dana
- Re: Power Question
- From: David W . Cantrell
- Power Question
- Prev by Date: CFP - The 1st International Workshop on Bit-Precise Reasoning (BPR 2008)
- Next by Date: Re: Mathematica: ListPlot, Filling->Axis with Joined->True problem
- Previous by thread: Re: Power Question
- Next by thread: Re: Power Question
- Index(es):
Relevant Pages
|
