Re: proof of the Riemann hypothesis ?
From: Joseph Hertzlinger (jcyclespersecondlongisland_at_nine.reticulatedcom.com)
Date: 06/03/04
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Date: Thu, 03 Jun 2004 02:19:06 GMT
On Tue, 1 Jun 2004 23:52:48 +0200, Christian Graf
<donotreplyhere@gmx.net> wrote:
> temp3600 wrote:
>> I stumbled upon this paper yesterday :
>> http://arxiv.org/abs/math.GM/0405531
>>
>> Anyone heard of it ?
>
> On page 2 he says:
> (c_1 - r_1) * ... * (c_n - r_n) = (c_1 - 1) * ... * (c_n -1)
> implies
> r_1 = ... = r_n = 1
> for complex c_i != 0 and real r_i != 0.
>
> Therefore I conclude:
> (2-4)*(3-4) = (2-1)*(3-1)
> implies
> 1=4
That's true for large values of 1 and small values of 4.
-- http://hertzlinger.blogspot.com
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