Re: irreducible polynomial

From: Robin Chapman (rjc_at_ivorynospamtower.freeserve.co.uk)
Date: 06/10/04 

Date: Thu, 10 Jun 2004 19:13:24 +0100

DanKage wrote:

> I still dont think I understand
>
> I get f(x+1) = ((x+1)^p - 1)/((x+1) - 1)
>
> how can I use the irreducibilitycriterion from here?

Ever heard of the binomial theorem? 

-- 
Robin Chapman, www.maths.ex.ac.uk/~rjc/rjc.html
"Lacan, Jacques, 79, 91-92; mistakes his penis for a square root, 88-9"
Francis Wheen, _How Mumbo-Jumbo Conquered the World_
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