Re: Infinity can not exist
From: Tracy Yucikas (tyucikas_at_nethere.com)
Date: 07/12/04
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Date: Sun, 11 Jul 2004 23:29:21 -0700
"Robert J. Kolker" <robert_kolker@hotmail.com> wrote in message
news:8ESHc.45385$JR4.25009@attbi_s54...
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>
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> Inifinite cardinality of sets is very well defined. A set has infinite
> cardinality if it can be mapped 1-1 onto a proper subset of it self.
Robert,
if (0,3) is the continuous interval (real numbers) between 0 and 3 without
the endpoints included and
[0,3] is the interval between 0 and 3 WITH the endpoints included
is (1,2) a "proper" subset of [0,3] ?
I ask because I don't think a 1-1 mapping exists between
open interval and closed intervals, tho both seem to possess infiinite
cardinality
a simple 1-1 mapping existts between (1,2) and (1.1, 1.9) so it has infinite
cardinality
likewise between [0,3] and [1,2] so it also has infinite cardinality
I realize that your definition didn't say "any" proper subset, but maybe
this is a side issue. Are there differences between the cardinality
of an open interval and a closed interval?
And if you know of a straightforward 1-1 mapping between open and closed
intervals I'd be very grateful to see it.
thank you,
tracy
(been a long time since thinking about this sort of thing\)
> Consider, for example, the set of non-negative integers Z. n <-> 2*n
> is a 1-1 map of the non-negative integers onto to the even integers
> which is a proper subset of the non-negative integers. Hence Z (by
> definition) is infinite. A set has finite cardinality if it does not
> have infinite cardinality which defines finite and finiteness for
> counting the number of elements in a set.
>
> Infinity is alive and well in the realm of transfinite numbers and set
> theory.
>
> Bob Kolker
>
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