Re: Invariant Galilean Transformations (FAQ) On All Laws
From: eleaticus (eleaticus_at_bellsouth.net)
Date: 08/16/04
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Date: Sun, 15 Aug 2004 21:05:04 -0500
"Uncle Al" <UncleAl0@hate.spam.net> wrote in message
news:41201152.555BE307@hate.spam.net...
> eleaticus wrote:
> >
> > "N:dlzc D:aol T:com (dlzc)" <N: dlzc1 D:cox T:net@nospam.com> wrote in
> > message news:hXRTc.65000$xk.24683@fed1read01...
> > > "eleaticus" <eleaticus@bellsouth.net> wrote in message
> > > news:P7QTc.7425$ii.5343@bignews5.bellsouth.net...
> > >
> > > Another reason to update my kill file...
> > >
> > > David A. Smith
> >
> > I take that (correctly?) as meaning you cannot show Maxwell
non-invariant
> > under the galilean translatory transformation without the spurious
> > atheoretical time transform, t'=t, being asserted?
> [snip crap]
>
> Hey stooopid, Galilean transforms are empirically invalid in a
> relativistic universe. You are playing solitaire with pinochle
> deck - and losing every game. Idiot.
I do wish you wouldn't sign your material so un-self-flatteringly, however
appropriately.
I do apreciate you submitting the above proof that you are so completely
dishonest intellectually.
How can it hurt in such a relativistic universe to admit that maxwell is/are
indeed invariant under the galilean translatory transformation when the
atheoretical t'=t transform is not (spuriously) imposed?
BTW, tell us again all about the many spatial/object contractions you see
every day a million times.
Child: Want to see the world's fastest wild west draw?
Kid: Yes.
Child: Want to see it again?
eleaticus
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