Re: Demonstrating that 0.999... = 1

From: Doug Evans (DgREvans_at_hotmail.com)
Date: 09/18/04

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Date: 18 Sep 2004 02:07:50 -0700

David C. Ullrich <ullrich@math.okstate.edu> wrote in message news:<2nklk01vgcjitgavir6hi647e9i2k521ri@4ax.com>...

> You keep saying the question is likely to come up in one case but
> not in the other. But you haven't given any indication of _why_
> it comes up in one case but not the other.

Don't even bother with this, Ray

These three bozos: Ullrich, Feldmann, and Seaman, are either a very
special kind of stupid or just some not very imaginative trolls.

Anyone with even the tiniest smidgin of intelligence can see where the
difference lies (after all, it's been explained in the tiniest detail,
by more than one poster), even if we are not especially impressed with
the OP's method - good enough for an informal, but seen before.

If you three idiots/trolls are trying to impress anyone, you're
failing.

Doug

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