Re: About pii and integers

From: Virgil (ITSnetNOTcom#virgil_at_COMCAST.com)
Date: 10/02/04 

Date: Fri, 01 Oct 2004 22:35:08 -0600

In article <opse74pq0e3uk9lu@cs81133.pp.htv.fi>,
 Keckman <keckman@welho.com> wrote:

> On Thu, 30 Sep 2004 22:07:02 +0000 (UTC), Arturo Magidin
> <magidin@math.berkeley.edu> wrote:
>
> > "n->oo" merely means that n gets larger and larger without any (finite)
> > limit, eventually getting larger than any particular natural number one
> > may choose.
>
> > Perhaps a better way to say what you mean is to take
> > "n->infinity" not in isolation, but in conjunction with
> > "f(n)->infinity", and to explain it by what it means: given any
> > particular bound N, there exist a natural number M (which may depend
> > on N) such that for any n>=N, we will have f(n)>=M.
> >
>
> I didn'd cathc the logic your statement saying something like for any n in
> N there exist
> many(as many as you want) m in N which are all bigger than n. That is
> obvious but what
> does got to with that
>
> I think that there is a number between all finite numbers and oo.

What you think seems sometimes not to be the case.
>
> And if i think then there is.

You are not a god to create such a thing by thinking it into existence.

> That is same kind of abstraction as is
> number 1 - we just think them to be.
>
> Does that number between finite numbers and oo belongs to N or not is a
> question where is no mathematical
> proof will be not found. It is a guestion of our choose.
>
> What do you think?

I think you don't think before posting.