Re: Deep Thoughts # 17: Liar Paradox is a Formal Metamathematical Theorem

From: Barb Knox (see_at_sig.below)
Date: 10/09/04 

Date: Sat, 09 Oct 2004 13:45:10 +1300

In article <bde404c9.0410061406.66583e24@posting.google.com>,
 QncyMI@netscape.net (Brian Quincy Hutchings) wrote:

>the liar "paradox" is just the result of not considering time
>"in the equation;"

It sure doesn't look that way: there is no explicit reference to time in
"This statement is false". By what deeper analysis to do you impute some
time reference?

>it is simply decategorized, as they say.

Eh? By "it" do you mean time, or the Liar sentence, or its paradoxical
nature, or what? And whatever "it" is, how is it being "decategorized" at
all (which I take as being some po-mo jargon adapted from bureaucratic
jargon, as in "decategorized funds"), much less "simply"? And who are
"they"? Inquiring minds need to know.

> this is the same as with his Village Barber "paradox."

Who's "he"? And again, where is the explicit or implicit reference to time
in the Barber paradox? And the Liar seems much more intractable than the
Barber: the simple solution to the Barber paradox is that there can not be
any such barber (just as the usual solution to the Russell-set paradox is
that there can not be any such set). But applying that to the Liar would be
saying that there can not be any such statement, but in actual fact there it
is right before your eyes.
>
>what is a "wff?"

If you don't know that then you almost certainly don't know much at all
about formal logic (beyond Aristotle), which IMO rather disqualifies you
from having an informed opinion on the Liar and related issues. But hey,
this is Usenet after all. 

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