Re: no comments?
From: The Ghost In The Machine (ewill_at_sirius.athghost7038suus.net)
Date: 10/09/04
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Date: Sat, 09 Oct 2004 02:00:46 GMT
In sci.math, Keckman
<keckman@welho.com>
wrote
on Thu, 07 Oct 2004 20:40:45 +0300
<opsfigp7go3uk9lu@cs81133.pp.htv.fi>:
> Your conversation about is Cantor's proof this or that
> is meaningless if somebody comes and tell/prove you there
> is error in structure and language called mathematichs before
> that.
>
> And where is that error? Here
>
> From these:
>
> Peano's Axiom
> 3. zero is not the successor of a number.
> 5. (induction axiom.) If a set S of numbers contains
> zero and also the successor of every number in S,
> then every number is in S.
>
> ...it has been made conclusion that N is infinite, but it is wrong.
N cannot be infinite in any practical sense (the Universe
would die the heat death first), but, given any finite and
supposedly complete set of natural numbers K and a *lot*
of time, I can take the maximum element of K (the natural
numbers have a natural ordering), find its successor,
and then prove that it's not in K (it's bigger than all
elements in K, after all). Whoops, K wasn't complete,
was it? So N has no maximum element.
In order to proceed one must define "infinite" properly, but it's
clear that N is not finite, either. (There are at least two
infinities: card(N) and card(R).)
>
> The right word should be limitless. And this is really not just semantic.
> If set is limitless it has as many items as ever, but allways finite
> number of them. Same as Paxiomn=n+1 keeps the bigness of number allways
> finite,
> so is the amount of numbers.
So N is finite but limitless? An interesting notion. I suppose
one could construct a mapping from N to R (n => 1 - 1/n would work,
preserving ordering) but I've no idea what you're getting at here.
>
> And this is not just semantic, because i can prove that there is a
> contradiction
> in saying that set N is infinite what comes to numbers amount, but only
> limitless
> what comes to bigness of number.
This paragraph makes no sense.
>
> Now lets try once again. Set N is said to be infinite. Infinete is said to
> be
> bigger than any number in N.
>
> Let's mark every item in N by label so that 1->1, 2->2,...,n->n,... How
> many
> labels? Answer: Infinite, because N is said to be infinite. What is the
> "biggest
> number"? Should be infinite because there is one label for every number
> and one
> number for every label, but all n in N are finite. cotradiction. There is
> not
> enough labels in N so that there could be infinite amount of numbers in N.
> Only
> limitless but not infinite. Or other way aroun: there is not enough
> numbers in N
> so that there could be infinite amount of labels in N. Only limitless but
> not
> infinite.
Your logic is goofy. For starters, you're assuming that there *is*
a biggest number, which is the true contradiction. Therefore, N has
no biggest number.
Since all finite sets which are (proper) subsets of a well-ordered
universal set N have a maximum element (the details are left to the
reader but one implementation is one iteration of a bubble-sort-like
algorithm), N is not finite.
>
> About proveing: If you got eyes you should see it here:
What I see is total confusion on your part. You need to clarify
your thinking, IMO.
-- #191, ewill3@earthlink.net It's still legal to go .sigless.
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