Re: Abstract Algebra Questions
From: Arturo Magidin (magidin_at_math.berkeley.edu)
Date: 10/30/04
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Date: Sat, 30 Oct 2004 21:14:49 +0000 (UTC)
In article <ba27c48a.0410300607.800eec5@posting.google.com>,
jk <jkaufman@shaw.ca> wrote:
>Is an operation a primative for functions.
Is this a question?
If so, it doesn't seem to make much sense to me.
An operation on a set is a kind of function. More spefically, an n-ary
operation (with n an ordinal) on the set A is a function from A^n (the
set of maps from the ordinal n to A) to A.
>If this is the case is it no longer
>required that if the first elements of an ordered pair are equal, then the second
>elements of the same pairs are also equal:
Huh?
>eg: for operation $: x $ 0 = a, x $ 0 = b, and a dne b
>how does this relate to existance and uniqueness?
Huh?
I honestly have no idea what you are talking about.
Existence and uniqueness of ->what<-?
>If the answers are too long to be posted to a message board, a
>link, or a book reference would be welcome.
--
======================================================================
"It's not denial. I'm just very selective about
what I accept as reality."
--- Calvin ("Calvin and Hobbes")
======================================================================
Arturo Magidin
magidin@math.berkeley.edu
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