Re: Poll: Are PCs Turing Machines?
From: Eray Ozkural exa (examachine_at_gmail.com)
Date: 12/03/04
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Date: 3 Dec 2004 02:47:25 -0800
"Mark Nudelman" <markn@greenwoodsoftware.com> wrote in message news:<BCKrd.600129$mD.87873@attbi_s02>...
> Eray Ozkural exa wrote:
> > examachine@gmail.com (Eray Ozkural exa) wrote in message
> > news:<320e992a.0412011208.2b75bc@posting.google.com>...
> >> I wonder what people really think about this.
> >>
> >> Are PCs physical examples to Turing Machines? [*]
> >>
> >> Please write only Yes/No to avoid discussion.
> >
> > A clarification is in order.
> ...
> > We usually consider equivalence in computability to be a sufficient
> > condition for being a physical example to a model of computation,
> > essentially covering the capabilities of "causal mechanism" involved.
> ...
> > It may be regarded sufficient that we can find a TM counterpart to
> > everything essential to computation in a PC, and the other way around.
>
> Still "no".
>
> A TM can perform a calculation that requires 10^1000 storage cells, but no
> PC or any other physical computer could do that.
Hi Mark,
There is another reading comprehension problem involved. Wearing the
philosopher hat, I think I should have made this one clear as well:
I do not ask the following:
Is the set of all PCs computationally equivalent to the set of all TMs
(whatever that means)
I ask:
Given a PC. Is it computationally equivalent to *a* Turing Machine?
That's a completely different question. I suggest you to consider the
latter reading, which is the correct reading.
Regards,
-- Eray Ozkural
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