Re: A pigeonhole principle problem

From: Robert Israel (israel_at_math.ubc.ca)
Date: 12/06/04


Date: 6 Dec 2004 07:48:10 GMT

In article <5aRsd.40909$Ch2.15646@bignews5.bellsouth.net>,
Michael Lockhart <ml1000@bellsouth.net> wrote:

>That's because 0 isn't positive.

This question has been discussed here before.
In English-speaking countries, 0 is not positive.
The convention is different in France and some other countries: 0 is considered
positive, and if you want to exclude it you have to say "strictly positive".

Robert Israel israel@math.ubc.ca
Department of Mathematics http://www.math.ubc.ca/~israel
University of British Columbia Vancouver, BC, Canada



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