Re: A pigeonhole principle problem

From: Michael Lockhart (ml1000_at_bellsouth.net)
Date: 12/06/04 

Date: Mon, 6 Dec 2004 17:32:35 -0500

"Robert Israel" <israel@math.ubc.ca> wrote in message
news:cp12rq$bi3$1@nntp.itservices.ubc.ca...
> In article <5aRsd.40909$Ch2.15646@bignews5.bellsouth.net>,
> Michael Lockhart <ml1000@bellsouth.net> wrote:
>>That's because 0 isn't positive.
>
> This question has been discussed here before.

Sorry, I never saw it discussed before.

> In English-speaking countries, 0 is not positive.

Positive, by definition, means "greater than 0".

> The convention is different in France and some other countries: 0 is
> considered
> positive, and if you want to exclude it you have to say "strictly
> positive".

? Can that be true? What about "non-negative"? Are you saying they don't
define positive as "greater than 0"? How do they define it?

Michael

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