Re: Pi, randomness of numbers?
From: Michael Stemper (mstemper_at_siemens-emis.com)
Date: 12/08/04
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Date: Wed, 8 Dec 2004 11:50:28 -0600
In article <fibtd.3496$yr1.3466@newsread3.news.pas.earthlink.net>, r.e.s. writes:
>"Phil Carmody" <thefatphil_demunged@yahoo.co.uk> wrote ...
[snip: digits of pi]
>> Except for the asymptotically negligible deviations proved by Mahler, that
>> is.
>
>That appears not to be an exception, since the behaviour described
>by Mahler's theorem is just what one would expect of a real number
>chosen at random in the interval (3,4).
Dumb question here. Are the expected characteristics of a randomly-chosen
real in the interval (3,4) any different than those of a randomly-chosen
real in the interval (0,1)? (Except for the offset of 3, of course)
I wouldn't expect there to be, but the way that the statement was worded
makes me wonder.
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