Re: What is a proof, exactly?

From: J.E. (troubled6man_at_yahoo.com)
Date: 12/09/04


Date: 9 Dec 2004 09:10:51 -0800

If ("y is a set" and "x belongs to y" ) implies "x is a set" then it
seems that equality is redundant is the sentance "(x belongs to y) or
it is not the case that (x belongs to y)" for every set x and every set
y since any expression "x=y" can be replaced with "Az (zey <=> zex)"
for some free variable z. Equality is redudant for sets, just
notational, unless the domain of discourse is irregular or contains
things other than sets.

As for the proper "relation" of equality, it's simply not neccissary
for most mathematics. If you considered the graph of the equality
relation it bears a striking resemblence to the class of all sets, in
fact it would likely be the class of all "singleton subsets". If
however one had multiple sets x and y with the same elements, and no
equality relation, there would be no way to distinguish between a set
containing x and a set containing y.



Relevant Pages

  • Re: proof of (-1).a= -a
    ... any equality whose left side belongs to B and whose ... the appropriate algebraic setting) raising both ... product with respect to a fixed scalar of both ...
    (sci.math)
  • Re: The infintely small number b
    ... ignored other core parts. ... The uncertainty on the self equality ... ... and claim of "smallest" should indicate that it doesn't belong to reals. ... It belongs to same realm where the beth-n belongs. ...
    (sci.math)

Quantcast